THE HOLOCAUST REPLICATED THE FIRST WORLD WAR

The Holocaust constituted a replication of the First World War, with Jews substituting for soldiers, although there were more soldiers killed than Jews (six-million deaths in the Holocaust as compared to nine-million deaths in the First World War).

In each case human beings were sent "like sheep to the slaughter," hardly knowing what they were in for.

Was Hitler aware that he was replicating or replaying the First World War? I think so: "If I have the right to send the pick of the German people into the Hell of War without regret for the spilling of precious German blood, then naturally I have the right to destroy millions of an inferior race that breeds like vermin." If states have the right to sacrifice/slaughter their most valuable members, why can't states also sacrifice or slaughter their least valuable members?

This logic also explains the euthanasia movement (killing of mental patients). If a state can kill the healthiest members of society, why can't it also kill the sickest members of society?

If people are not shocked by the mass-slaughter of the First World War, why are they shocked by the mass-slaughter of the Holocaust?